Google Cloud Professional Cloud Architect · 24% practice allocation

Google Cloud Professional Cloud Architect: Design and plan a cloud solution architecture Practice Questions

5 free sample questions from the Design and plan a cloud solution architecture domain, with answers and explanations. The full Professional Cloud Architect bank has 251 questions across 6 domains. Questions are scenario-based and written from the official Google Cloud exam guide.

1.

A startup is building a lightweight public-facing webhook receiver that must process incoming HTTP POST requests, perform a small data transformation, and write results to Firestore. Expected traffic is roughly 50 requests per second on average with occasional bursts to 500 requests per second. The team wants to minimize operational overhead and pay only for actual execution time. Which compute option is most appropriate?

  • A. Cloud Run, configured to allow scaling to the required concurrency.✓ Correct
  • B. A GKE Autopilot cluster with a single-replica deployment.
  • C. Cloud Functions (2nd gen) triggered by HTTP.
  • D. A single Compute Engine n2-standard-4 instance with a custom HTTP server.
Explanation

Cloud Run is the best fit because it is a fully managed serverless container platform that scales automatically from zero to hundreds of instances, charges only for request processing time, and handles HTTP traffic natively. It is well-suited for stateless HTTP services with variable traffic. Cloud Functions (2nd gen) is also serverless and pay-per-execution, but Cloud Run is preferred for HTTP microservices that may have longer execution times or need container-level control — both are viable, but Cloud Run is the more architecturally idiomatic choice for a persistent HTTP endpoint at this traffic level. A single Compute Engine instance does not scale automatically and would be a single point of failure. GKE Autopilot reduces node management but still requires cluster-level management, persistent costs, and is overengineered for this simple stateless HTTP use case.

2.

A gaming company is designing an in-game leaderboard system that must support up to 50 million concurrent players globally. The leaderboard data (player ID, score, rank) must be readable with sub-10ms latency from any region, and scores are updated thousands of times per second. Which storage solution BEST satisfies these requirements?

  • A. Firestore in Native mode with a multi-region database configuration.
  • B. Bigtable with a multi-cluster routing policy across clusters in multiple regions.✓ Correct
  • C. Cloud SQL for PostgreSQL with read replicas deployed in each target region.
  • D. Memorystore for Redis with a regional deployment and application-level replication logic.
  • E. Cloud Spanner with a multi-region configuration and read-only replicas in each region.
Explanation

Bigtable is designed for extremely high-throughput, low-latency reads and writes at massive scale (millions of QPS), making it the best fit for a high-frequency leaderboard. With multi-cluster routing, reads can be served from the nearest cluster with single-digit millisecond latency. Cloud Spanner (E) offers global consistency and horizontal scaling, but its typical read latency is in the low tens of milliseconds due to distributed consensus overhead — it may not reliably achieve sub-10ms globally. Cloud SQL (C) is a managed relational database but is not designed to handle thousands of writes per second at global scale; cross-region read replicas also introduce replication lag. Firestore (A) is a great fit for document-oriented, mobile/web use cases but is not optimized for the extremely high write throughput of a global gaming leaderboard at this scale. Memorystore (D) provides in-memory speed but is regional; cross-region replication is not natively supported and would require significant custom engineering.

3.

An organization is designing a new Google Cloud environment for a regulated financial workload and wants to follow the Google Cloud Adoption Framework. The security team insists on approving every new API enabled in the project, and the infrastructure team wants to ensure no resources are created outside of approved regions. Which two Google Cloud mechanisms should the architect implement to enforce these policies? (Select TWO.)

  • A. Assured Workloads, configured with the appropriate compliance regime, to automatically enforce regional restrictions and API restrictions for regulated workloads.✓ Correct
  • B. IAM conditions on service accounts to restrict which regions services can deploy resources to.
  • C. Organization Policy constraints, specifically 'constraints/gcp.resourceLocations' to restrict allowed regions and 'constraints/serviceusage.restrictedServices' (or a custom org policy) to control which APIs can be enabled.✓ Correct
  • D. VPC Service Controls perimeters to prevent data exfiltration between projects.
  • E. Cloud Security Command Center (SCC) with custom findings rules to alert when resources are created in unapproved regions.
  • F. Cloud Asset Inventory with a custom export to BigQuery to audit resource creation after the fact.
Explanation

Option C (Organization Policy constraints) provides preventive, policy-as-code controls: 'constraints/gcp.resourceLocations' enforces which regions resources can be created in, and service usage constraints can restrict which Google APIs are enabled—exactly matching both requirements. Option A (Assured Workloads) is designed for regulated workloads and automatically configures data residency and access controls including region restrictions and restricted API services based on compliance regimes (e.g., FedRAMP, IL4); it directly addresses both requirements in an integrated, compliance-validated way. Together, these two provide robust preventive enforcement. Option D (VPC Service Controls) addresses data exfiltration between services, not region or API enablement restrictions. Option F (Cloud Asset Inventory with BigQuery) is detective and after-the-fact, not preventive. Option B (IAM conditions) can restrict API call destinations in some cases but is not the standard mechanism for restricting resource creation regions across an org or controlling which services are enabled. Option E (SCC with alerting) is also detective and reactive, not preventive enforcement.

4.

A company is using Shared VPC to centralize network management across multiple service projects. A new service project team reports that their Compute Engine instances cannot reach the internet, even though the host project has a Cloud NAT configuration. What is the MOST likely cause?

  • A. Service project instances are not permitted to use Cloud NAT; they must use external IP addresses to access the internet.
  • B. The Shared VPC firewall rules are blocking outbound traffic from service project instances by default.
  • C. Cloud NAT in a Shared VPC host project only applies to instances in the host project; each service project requires its own Cloud NAT configuration.
  • D. The Cloud NAT configuration in the host project is not associated with the specific subnet used by the service project's instances.✓ Correct
Explanation

Option D is correct. Cloud NAT in a Shared VPC is configured at the host project level, but it must be explicitly associated with the specific subnets whose instances should use it. If the Cloud NAT gateway is associated only with certain subnets (or set to 'Custom' subnet mode without including the service project's subnets), instances in unincluded subnets will not have outbound internet access. Option C is incorrect: Cloud NAT in the host project can serve instances in service projects that use subnets from the shared VPC — it is not restricted to host project instances. Option A is a misconception: service project instances with no external IP can absolutely use Cloud NAT; that is one of the primary use cases for Cloud NAT in Shared VPC environments. Option B is plausible but incorrect as the primary cause: GCP VPC firewall rules have no default egress deny rule (default egress is allow-all); a misconfigured NAT subnet association is a much more common and specific root cause.

5.

An architect is performing capacity planning for a new GKE workload. The application pods require 2 vCPU and 4 GB RAM each. The team expects to run 50 pods at steady state and up to 100 pods at peak. GKE cluster autoscaler is enabled. The node pool uses n2-standard-8 instances (8 vCPU, 32 GB RAM). Kubernetes reserves approximately 0.5 vCPU and 1.5 GB RAM per node for system overhead. How many n2-standard-8 nodes are needed at MINIMUM to schedule 100 pods at peak?

  • A. 14 nodes, because each node can fit 3 pods (7.5 usable vCPU / 2 = 3.75, floored to 3; 30.5 GB / 4 GB = 7.6, vCPU is the binding constraint), and ceil(100/3) = 34 nodes... recalculating: 14 nodes provides 14×3 = 42 pods.
  • B. 14 nodes, because each n2-standard-8 provides 7.5 usable vCPU and 30.5 GB usable RAM. Each pod needs 2 vCPU and 4 GB. Packing by vCPU: floor(7.5/2) = 3 pods; packing by RAM: floor(30.5/4) = 7 pods. vCPU is the binding constraint at 3 pods/node. ceil(100/3) = 34 nodes, not 14.
  • C. 34 nodes, because each n2-standard-8 has 7.5 usable vCPU and 30.5 GB usable RAM. Pod vCPU is the binding constraint: floor(7.5/2) = 3 pods per node. ceil(100/3) = 34 nodes at minimum.✓ Correct
  • D. 20 nodes, because 100 pods × 2 vCPU = 200 vCPU needed; each node provides 7.5 usable vCPU; 200/7.5 = 26.7, ceiling = 27 nodes... this is inconsistent with 20.
Explanation

Option C is mathematically correct. Each n2-standard-8 node has 8 vCPU and 32 GB RAM. After Kubernetes system reservations (0.5 vCPU, 1.5 GB RAM), the allocatable capacity is 7.5 vCPU and 30.5 GB RAM. Each pod requests 2 vCPU and 4 GB RAM. Packing by vCPU: floor(7.5 / 2) = 3 pods per node. Packing by RAM: floor(30.5 / 4) = 7 pods per node. CPU is the binding constraint, so each node can schedule 3 pods. To schedule 100 pods: ceil(100 / 3) = 34 nodes. Options A and D contain arithmetic errors and self-contradictions, making them clearly wrong. Option B correctly walks through the math but then presents an incorrect final answer (34 nodes but labels it as '14'), making it internally inconsistent and wrong. Option C presents the correct full calculation and arrives at the right answer of 34 nodes.

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